Means of Transport

They help in—

• increasing cooperation and assistance between countries;
• easy movement of goods and material between countries;
• trade and commerce within the country;
• reducing distances thus bringing the world closer;
• both production and distribution of goods; and
• movement of large number of people and over long distances.

Roadways:
Importance of road transport vis-a-vis rail transport—

• Construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway lines.
• Roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography.
• Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and as such can traverse mountains such as the Himalayas.
• Road transport is economical in transportation

• of few persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over short distances.
• It also provides door-to-door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower.
• Road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of transport.

Six classes of roads in India according to their capacity:

• Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways: It’s a major road development project linking Delhi- Kolkata-Chennai-Mumbai and Delhi by six-lane Super Highways.
• The North-South corridors linking Srinagar (Jammu & Kashmir) and Kanyakumari (Tamil Nadu), and East-West Corridor connecting Silcher (Assam) and Porbander (Gujarat) are part of this project. ‘
• They are made to reduce the time and distance between the mega cities of India.

National Highways:
National Highways link all Major cities of extreme parts of the country. These are the primary road systems and are maintained by the Central Public Works Department (CPWD). The National Highway 7 between Varanasi and Kanyakumari is the longest highway of India.

• State Highways: Roads linking a state capital with different district headquarters. These roads are constructed and maintained by State Public Works Department in State and Union Territories.
• District Roads: These roads connect the district headquarters with other places of the district. These roads are maintained by the Zila Parishad.
• Other Roads: Rural roads, which link rural areas and villages with towns, are classified under this category. Under the Pradhan Mantri Grameen Sadak Yojana scheme special provisions are made so that every village in the country is linked to a major town in the country by an all season motorable road.
• Border Roads: Border Roads Organisation constructs and maintains roads in the bordering areas of the country. These roads are of strategic importance in the northern and northeastern border areas.

Importance of Railways in India:
They are the principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India. Railways also make it possible to conduct different activities like business, sightseeing, and pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances. Indian Railways plays a role of national integration. Railways in India bind the economic life of the country as well as accelerate the development of the industry and agriculture.

Factors which influence the distribution pattern of Railway network in India:
The distribution pattern of the Railway network in the country has been largely influenced by physiographic, economic and administrative factors. The density railway network is high in the northern plains because they are vast level land, have high population density and rich agricultural resources. In the hilly terrains of the peninsular region, railway tracts are laid through low hills, gaps or tunnels therefore it difficult to construct railway lines. The Himalayan mountainous regions too are unfavorable for the construction of railway lines due to high relief, sparse population and lack of economic opportunities. It was difficult to lay railway lines on the sandy plain of western Rajasthan, swamps of Gujarat, forested tracks of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Jharkhand.

Importance of Pipelines in India:
In the past, these were used to transport water to cities and industries. Now, these are used for transporting crude oil, petroleum products and natural gas from oil and natural gas fields to refineries, fertilizer factories and big thermal power plants. Solids can also be transported through a pipeline when converted into slurry. Because of pipelines refineries like Barauni, Mathura, Panipat and gas based fertilizer plants could be located in the interiors of India. Initial cost of laying pipelines is high but subsequent running costs are minimal. It rules out trans-shipment (during transportation) losses or delays.
Three important networks of pipeline transportation in the country:

• From oil field in upper Assam to Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh).
• From Salaya in Gujarat to Jalandhar in Punjab.
• Gas pipeline from Hazira in Gujarat connects Jagdishpur in Uttar Pradesh,

Importance of water transport:
Waterways are the cheapest means of transport. They are most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods. It is a fuel-efficient and environment friendly mode.
The National Waterways by the Government

1. The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia (1620 km)-N.W. No.1
2. The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri (891 km)-N.W. No.2
3. The West-Coast Canal in Kerala (Kottapurma-Komman, Udyogamandal and Champakkara canals-205 km)-N.W. No.3

Major Sea Ports:

1. Kandla: It was the first port developed soon after Independence. It was developed to ease the volume of trade on the Mumbai port. Kandla is a tidal port.
2. Mumbai: It is the biggest port with a spacious natural and well-sheltered harbour.
3. The Jawaharlal Nehru port: It was planned with a view to decongest the Mumbai port and serve as a hub port for this region.
4. Martnagao port (Goa): It is the premier iron ore exporting port of the country. This port accounts for about fifty per cent of India’s iron ore export.
5. New Mangalore port: It export iron ore from Kudremukh mines.
6. Kochi: It is the located at the entrance of a lagoon with a natural harbour.
7. Tuticorin, in Tamil Nadu: This port has a natural harbour. It trades a large variety of cargoes to our neighbouring countries like Sri Lanka, Maldives, etc.
8. Chennai: It is one of the oldest artificial ports of the country. It is ranked next to Mumbai in terms of the volume of trade and cargo.
9. Vishakhapatnam: It is the deepest landlocked and well-protected port. This port was developed as a port for iron ore exports.
10. Paradip port: It is located in Odisha. It specialises in the export of iron ore.
11. Kolkata: It is an inland riverine port. This port serves a very large and rich hinterland of Ganga- Brahmaputra basin. Being a tidal port, it requires constant dredging of Floogly River.
12. Haldia port: It was developed as a subsidiary port, in order to relieve growing pressure on the Kolkata port.

Importance of Airways:
The air travel, today, is the fastest, most comfortable and prestigious mode of transport. It can cover very difficult terrains like high mountains, dreary deserts, dense forests and also long oceanic stretches with great ease. Air travel has made access easier in the north-eastern part of the country which has big rivers, dissected relief, dense forests and frequent floods and international frontiers.

Communication:
Two major means of communication in India:

• Personal communication including letter, email, telephone, etc.
• Mass communication including television, radio, press, films, etc.

Different types of mail handled by Indian postal department:

• First class mail: Cards and envelopes are airlifted between stations covering both land and air.
• Second class mail: includes book packets, registered newspapers and periodicals. They are carried by surface mail, covering land and water transport.

Importance of mass communication:
Mass communication provides entertainment. They create awareness among people about various national programmes and policies. They provide variety of programmes in national, regional and local languages for various categories of people, spread over different parts of the country. They strengthen democracy in the country by providing news and information to the masses. It helps in agriculture sector by helping farmers by providing them information about new agricultural practices. Doordarshan is the national television channel of India. It is one of the largest terrestrial networks in the world. The largest numbers of newspapers published in the country are in Hindi, followed by English and Urdu. India is the largest producer of feature films in the world.

International Trade:

• International trade is defined as the exchange of goods and services between two or more countries.
• It is also considered as economic barometer because advancement of international trade of a country leads to economic prosperity. Income earned from international trade constitutes a major part in the net national income. Large international trade leads to revival of domestic economy.

Balance of trade:

• The difference between export and import is known as balance of trade.
• If the value of exports is more than the value of imports, it is called favorable balance of trade. And if the value of imports is greater than the value of exports it is known as unfavorable balance of trade.
• Favorable balance of trade is regarded good for the economic development where as unfavorable balance of trade is seen harmful for the domestic economy.

Importance of tourism as a trade:

• Tourism in India earns huge Foreign exchange,
• Over 2.6 million foreign tourists visit India every year.
• More than 15 million people are directly engaged in the tourism industry.
• Tourism also promotes national integration,
• It provides support to local handicrafts and cultural pursuits.
• It also helps in the development of international understanding about our culture and heritage.
• Foreign tourists visit India for heritage tourism, eco tourism, adventure tourism, cultural tourism, medical tourism and business tourism.
• Rajasthan, Goa, Jammu and Kashmir and temple towns of south India are important destinations of foreign tourists in India.
• There is vast potential of tourism development in the north-eastern states and the interior parts of Himalayas, but due to strategic reasons these have not been encouraged so far.

Three fresh water sources are:
Precipitation—from rainfall; Surface water—in rivers, lakes, etc.; Ground water—water stored in underground acquirers which gets recharged by rainfall.

Water scarcity:
Water scarcity means shortage of water. It is usually associated with regions having low rainfall or drought prone areas.

There are many other reasons which lead to scarcity of water:
Large growing population; In the agricultural sector, water resources are being over-exploited to expand irrigated areas and dry- season agriculture; More water required for irrigation purposes to facilitate higher food production, i. e., for doing multiple cropping and for HYV seeds; There is greater demand for water with growing urbanization and industrialization; An unequal access to water among different social groups; The quality of water is deteriorating, i.e., getting polluted by domestic and industrial wastes, chemical fertilizers and pesticides used in agriculture; Excessive use of water by industries which also require water to generate hydro-electric power to run them; and Over exploitation of water in the urban areas.

Adverse effects of over-exploitation of ground water resources:

• Pumping out more water from under the ground may lead to falling ground water levels.
• It will adversely affect water availability.
• This, in turn, will affect our agriculture and food security of the people.
• Impoverishment of water resources may adversely affect the ecological cycle.

Main causes of water pollution:
Domestic wastes, especially urban sewers; industrial wastes are disposed off in the water without proper treatment; chemical effluents from industries and from agricultural sector; and many human activities, e.g., religious rituals and immersing of idols, etc. in the water also pollute water.

Measures for water conservation:

• Do not overdraw the ground water, recharge it by techniques like rainwater harvesting; tapping rainwater in reservoirs, watershed development programmes, etc.
• Avoid wastage of water at all levels and do not pollute the water.
• Adopting water conserving techniques of irrigation, e.g., drip irrigation and sprinklers etc., especially in dry areas.

A dam is a barrier across flowing water that obstructs, directs or retards the flow, creating a reservoir, lake or impoundment. A dam is the reservoir and not the whole structure.

Multipurpose river valley projects —’The Temples of Modem India’:
Jawahar Lai Nehru pro-claimed that multipurpose projects are ‘The Temples of Modem India’, because they were thought of as the vehicle that would lead the nation to development and progress. He believed that these projects with their integrated water resource management approach would integrate development of agriculture and the village economy with rapid industrialization and growth of the urban economy.

Advantages:

• They bring water to those areas which suffer from water scarcity and also provide water for irrigation;
• These projects generate electricity for industries and our homes;
• They help in controlling floods;
• These projects can be used for recreation, inland navigation and fish breeding.

Disadavantages:

• Damming of rivers affects their natural flow causing poor sediment flow;
• Excessive sedimentation at the bottom of the reservoir;
• Lack of sediments results in (a) rockier stream bed and (b) poorer habitat for the rivers aquatic life;
• The reservoirs submerge the existing vegetation and soil, leading to its decomposition over time;
• They affect the fertility levels of the soil;
• cause large scale displacement of local communities.

Traditional rainwater harvesting methods practiced in different parts of the country:

• In mountainous areas ‘Guls’ and ‘Kuls’ the diversion channels were built for agriculture.
• ‘Rooftop rainwater harvesting’ was commonly practiced to store drinking water, especially in Rajasthan.
• Inundation channels for irrigation were developed in the flood plains of West Bengal.
• In arid and semi-arid regions, agricultural fields were converted into rain fed storage structures, e.g., ‘Khadins’ in Jaisalmer and ‘Johads’ in other parts of Rajasthan.
• In semi-arid and arid regions of Rajasthan, particularly in Bikaner, Phalodi and Banner, all the houses had underground tanks or ‘tankas’ built inside the house for storing drinking water. They were a part of the well-developed rooftop rainwater harvesting system.

‘Narmada Bachao Andolan’:
Narmada Bachao Andolan or Save Narmada Movement is an NGO that mobilized tribal people, farmers, environmentalists and human rights activists against the Sardar Sarovar Dam being built across the Narmada river in Gujarat. The movement originally focused on environmental issues related to submerging of trees under the dam water. Recently its aim has been to enable the displaced poor people to get full rehabilitation facilities from the government.

CHAPTER 3 AGRICULTURE

India is an agricultural country because of the following reasons:

1. Two-third of its population is engaged in agricultural activities.
2. Agriculture is a primary activity and produces most of the food and food grains.
3. It produces raw materials for our various industries, e.g., cotton textile, sugar industry.
4. Agricultural products, like tea, coffee, spices are exported and earn foreign exchange.

Primitive Subsistence Farming:

This type of farming is practiced in few pockets of India on small patches of land using primitive tools and family/community labor. Farmers clear a patch of land and produce cereals and other food crops to sustain their families. When the soil fertility decreases, the farmers shift and clear a fresh patch of land for cultivation. This type of shifting allows nature to replenish the fertility of the soil through natural processes. Land productivity is low as the farmer does not use fertilizers or other modem inputs.

Intensive Subsistence Farming:

It is practiced in areas of high population pressure on land. It is labor intensive farming. Yield per hectare is high because high doses of biochemical inputs and irrigation are used. The size of the land-holdings is small and uneconomical. Farmers take maximum output from the limited land by raising 2-3 crops in a year from the same land, i.e., multiple cropping is practiced.

Commercial Agriculture:

In this, crops are mainly grown for commercial purposes. It is practiced on large pieces of land on scientific and commercial lines using machines and modem technology. There is higher use of modem agricultural inputs, e.g., HYV seeds, fertilizers, irrigation, etc. The degree of commercialization varies from one region to another. Rice is a commercial crop in Punjab, while in Odisha it is subsistence crop. E.g., plantation agriculture.

Characteristics of plantation agriculture:

A single type of crop is grown on a large area. Plantation is carried out on large estates using lot of capital intensive units. Lot of migrant laborers work on these estates. The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry. All the produce is used as raw material in the respective industries. The production is mainly for the market, i.e., commercial agriculture.

Rabi, Kharif and Zaid are the three cropping seasons:

• Rabi crops (Winter crops): Sown in winter—October to December. Harvested in summer—April to June. Important crops: wheat, barley, mustard, peas, gram, etc.
• Kharif crops (Crops of the rainy season): Sown—onset of monsoon (June-July). Harvested— September-October. Important crops: rice, maize, millets, jowar, bajra, tur (arhar), moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and soyabean.
• Zaid season: It is a short cropping season during summer months mainly between March-April and June-July. Main crops—watermelon, musk melon, cucumber etc.

Rice is the most important food crop (Kharif crop) of India. India holds second position in rice production after China. Cultivation—High temperature of 25° C and above and high humidity with annual rainfall of 100 cms is required. Four major regions of rice cultivation are —

1. Plains of North, India;
2. Plains of North-Eastern India;
3. Coastal areas; and
4. Deltaic regions. Irrigated rice is produced in Punjab, Haryana, Western UP and Rajasthan.

Wheat is the second most important cereal crop of India. It is the main food crop.

Geographical conditions:

Cool and moist growing season. Bright sunshine at the time of ripening. Rainfall: 50 to 75 cm evenly distributed over the growing season, loamy soil.

Wheat growing zones—

1. The Ganga-Sutlej plains in the North-West and
2. Black soil region of the Deccan.

Wheat producing states—Punjab, Haryana, UP, Bihar, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh.

Jowar is the third most important food crop with respect to area and production, kharif crop, rainfed crop grown in moist areas.

Major producing states

Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.

Millets are called coarse grains. They have high nutritional value, important part of the diet for poor people. Examples:

• Ragi: Leading producer is Karnataka, followed by Tamil Nadu. Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Uttaranchal, Sikkim etc. are other important regions.
• Jowar: Maharashtra is the leading producer followed by Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh.
• Bajra: It grows well on sandy soils and shallow black soils. Rajasthan is the largest producer followed by Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Haryana.

Maize crop — Geographical conditions:

Kharif crop, requires temperature between 21° C to 27° C, requires moderate rainfall between 50-100 cm. It grows well in old alluvial soils.

Maize is a crop which is used both as food and fodder. In some states like Bihar, maize is grown in rabi season also. Maize production in India has increased due to factors like—use of modem inputs such as HYV seeds; use of fertilisers; and use of irrigation facilities.

India is the second largest producer of sugarcane after Brazil.

Geographical conditions:

It is a tropical as well as subtropical crop. It grows well in hot and humid climate. Temperature: 21°C to 27°C. Annual rainfall between 75 cm and 100 cms. Irrigation is required in the regions of low rainfall. It can be grown on a variety of soils. It needs manual labour from sowing to harvesting.

Six major states producing sugarcane—Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Punjab and Haryana. Sugarcane is the main source of sugar, gur (jaggery), khandsari and molasses.

Oilseeds:

India is the largest producer of oil seeds in the world. 12% of the total cropped area is under oilseed production. Six major oilseeds produced in India—Groundnut, mustard, coconut, sesamum (til), soyabean, castor-seeds, linseed, sunflower and cotton-seeds. Most of these oilseeds are edible and are used as cooking mediums. Some are also used as raw material in the production of soap, cosmetics and ointments.

Tea Geographical conditions:

It grows well in tropical and subtropical climates. It requires deep, fertile, well drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter. It requires warm and moist frost free climate round the year. Frequent showers evenly distributed through the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves. Tea is a labour intensive industry. It requires abundant, cheap and skilled labour.

Coffee:

Most important beverage crop of South India, India produces 4% of the world’s coffee production. Major states—Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu (mainly in Nilgiri hills).

Cotton is mainly produced in Maharashtra, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh. Cotton is the fibre crop which is mainly grown in the black soil of the Deccan Plateau region.

1. Position. India is the 3rd largest producer of cotton in the world.
2. Geographical conditions. Requires—high temperature; light rainfall or irrigation; 210 frost-free days; bright sunshine; black cotton soil; Kharif crop and requires 6-8 months to mature.
3. Major cotton producing states—Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.

Jute:

Mainly grown in West Bengal, Bihar and Assam, known as golden fibre. Jute is mainly grown in West Bengal, especially in the Hoogly Basin because there the geographical conditions favour its growth. These conditions are—

• High temperature required during the time of growth,
• Jute grows well on well-drained fertile soils in the flood plains where soils are renewed every year.

Jute products are—gunny bags, ropes, mats, carpets, yams and other ornamental artifacts.

Rubber is produced in Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka, Andaman and Nicobar islands and Garo hills of Meghalaya. Conditions: It requires hot and humid climate. Rainfall—200 cms. Temperature— above 25° C. Maximum rubber is consumed in the manufacture of auto tyres and tubes and cycle tyres and tubes.

Institutional reforms in Agriculture:

1. Collectivization and consolidation of land holdings to make them economically viable.
2. The green revolution based on the use of package technology and the White Revolution to increase milk production.
3. Cooperation with farmers and Abolition of Zamindari system.
4. Provision of crop insurance to protect the farmers against losses caused by natural calamities, i.e., drought, flood, cyclone, fire and disease.
5. Establishment of ‘Grameen Banks’, Cooperative Societies and Banks.
6. Kissan Credit Card (KCC), Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS).
7. Special weather bulletins and agricultural programmes for farmers on radio and TV.
8. Announcement of minimum support price, remunerative and procurement prices for crops to check the exploitation of farmers.

CHAPTER 3

Nationalism in India

The growth of modern nationalism is intimately connected to anti-colonial movement.

The congress under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi tried to forge groups together within one movement. However, the unity did not emerge without conflict.

First World War, Khilafat and Non-Cooperation

1. National Movement was spreading in New areas in 1919 and incorporating new social groups and developing new modes of struggle.
2. Mahatma Gandhi came to India and The Idea of Satyagraha emphasised the power of truth and the need to search for truth.
3. He advocated that physical force was not necessary to fight the oppressor.
4. In 1916, He travelled to Champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation system.

The Idea of Satyagraha

1. Mahatma Gandhi returned to India in January, 1915. His heroic fight for the Indians in South Africa was well-known. His novel method of mass agitation known as Satyagraha had yielded good results.
2. The idea of Satyagraha emphasized the power of truth and the need to search for truth.
3. In 1916, Gandhi travelled to Champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation system.
4. In 1917,crops field in Kheda district of Gujrat, but the government refused to remit land revenue and insisted on its full collection.
5. In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi intervened in a dispute between workers and mill owners of Ahmedabad. He advised to workers to go on strike and to demand a 35% increase in wages.
6. Satyagraha brought Gandhiji into close touch with the workers in the urban areas.

The Rowlatt act

1. When the Rawlatt act 1919, was passed hurriedly through the Imperial Legislative Council inspire of unanimous opposition of the Indian members, Gandhiji’s patience comes to an end.
2. Gandhi wanted non-violent civil disobedience against such unjust laws, which would start with a hartal on 6th April.
3. 6th April 1919 was observed as Satyagraha Day when people all over the country observed fast and hartal.
4. 1919, the country witnessed a remarkable political awakening in India.
5. Local leaders were picked up from Amritsar and Mahatma Gandhi was barred from entering Delhi.
6. On 10th April, the police in Amritsar fired upon a peaceful procession, provoking widespread attacks on banks.

Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

1. A large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground of Jalliawalla Bagh.
2. People came to protest against government’s repressive measure while some came to attend the annual Baisakhi fair.
3. General Dyer entered the area. Blocked the exit points and opened fire on the crowd, killing hundreds.
4. The government responded with brutal repression seeking to humiliate and terrorise people.
5. Satyagrahis were forced to rub their noses on the ground, crawl on the streets and do Salaam (salute) to all Sahibs.

Khilafat movement

1. Rowlatt Satyagraha had been a widespread movement, it was still limited mostly to cities and towns.
2. Mahatma Gandhi now felt the need to launch a more broad based movement in India.
3. But he was certain that no such movement could be organized without bringing the Hindus and Muslims closer together.
4. The First World War had ended with the defeat of Ottoman Turkey. There were rumors that a harsh peace treaty was going to be imposed on the Ottoman Emperor, who was the spiritual head (Khalifa) of the Islamic world.
5. The Muslims of India decided to force Britain to change her Turkish policy.
6. A Khalifa Committee was formed under the leadership of Maulana Azad, Ajmal Khan and Hasrat Mohani.
7. A young generation of Muslim leaders like the brothers Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali began discussing with Mahatma Gandhi about the possibility of a united mass action on the issue.

Differing strands within the movement:

1. Rebellion in the countryside: – From the cities, the noncooperation movement spread to the countryside. After the war, the struggles of peasants and tribal were developing in different parts of India.
2. One movement here war against talukdars and landlords who demanded from peasant exorbitantly high rents and a variety of other cesses.
3. Peasants had to do begar. The peasant movement demanded reduction of revenue, an abolition of begar and social boycott of oppressive landlords.
4. Oudh Kisan Sabha was setup headed by. Jawaharlal Nehru and other, within a month, over 300 branches had been set up by the villagers.
5. Tribal peasants interpreted the message of Mahatma Gandhi and the idea of Swaraj in yet another way.
6. The colonial government had closed large forest areas preventing people from entering the forests to graze their cattle, or to collect fuel wood and fruits.
7. Alluri Sitaram Raju Claimed that he had a variety of special powers. He asserted that India could be liberated only by the use of force.

Towards Civil Disobedience

1. Mahatma Gandhi decided to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922.
2. The movement was turning violent in many places and satyagarhis needed properly trained for mass struggle.
3. CR Das and Motilal Nehru formed the Swaraj Party within the Congress to argue for a return to council politics.
4. Salt was a powerful symbol that could unite the nation.
5. Salt march accompanied by 78 of his trusted volunteers.
6. Finally, Mahatma Gandhi once again decided to call off the movement and entered into a pact with Irwin on 5 March 1931.
7. Participants saw the movement in different angle such as Patidars of Gujarat and Jats of Uttar Pradesh.
8. To organise business interest, formed the Indian Industrial and commercial congress in 1920 and Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI).
9. Gandhi called to Untouchable that is Harijan, Children of God.

The Sense of Collective Belonging

Nationalist Movement Spreads when people belonging to different regions and communities begin to develop a sense of collective belongingness. The identity of a nation is most often symbolized in a figure or image.

This image of Bharat Mata was first created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in 1870 when he wrote ‘Vande Mataram ‘ for our motherland. Indian folk songs and folk sung by bards played an important role in making the idea of nationalism. In Bengal, Rabindranath Tagore and in Madras, Natesa, Sastri collection of folk tales and songs, which led the movement for folk revival.

During the Swadeshi Movement, a tri-color ( red, green and yellow ) flag was designed in Bengal. It had eight lotuses representing eight provinces and a crescent moon representing Hindus and Muslims.

Means of creating a feeling of nationalism was through reinterpretation of history. The nationalist writers urged the readers to take pride in India’s great achievements in the past and struggle to change the miserable conditions of life under British rule.

CHAPTER 3 Motions of the Earth

Rotation

The movement of Earth on its axis is called Rotation.

Revolution

The movement of Earth around the Sun in a fixed orbit is called Revolution.

Orbital Plane

The imaginary plane formed by the orbit is known as the orbital plane. The axis of Earth makes an angle of 66.6° with its orbital plane.

Circle of Illumination

Due to its spherical shape, only half of the Earth experiences Sun (or Day) at a time, other half experiences night. The imaginary circle which divides Earth into halves of day and night is known as the circle of illumination.

Day and Year

Earth takes about 24 hours to complete its one rotation. It is known as Earth Day.

Earth takes 365 days and 6 hours to complete its one revolution. For the sake of convenience, we ignore 6 hours and consider 365 days as a year. But, surplus 6 hours are added to make one day (24 hours) over a period of every four years. This surplus day is added to the month of February. This result in a year of 366

Seasons

Earth moves around the Sun in an elliptical orbit. This means the distance between Earth and the Sun is never a constant. This change causes the change in seasons. The four major seasons are summer, winter, spring and autumn.

Summer Solstice

On 21st June, the Northern Hemisphere is tilted towards the Sun and sunrays directly falls on the Tropic of Cancer. As a result, this area receives more light and heat. The day is longest and night is the shortest in Northern Hemisphere. This phenomenon is known as the Summer Solstice. Since a large portion of Northern Hemisphere receives heat and light from Sun during this period, it is Summer in the Northern Hemisphere. The conditions are the exact opposite in Southern Hemisphere and it experiences Winter during this period.

Winter Solstice

On 22nd December, the Southern Hemisphere is tilted towards the Sun and sunrays directly falls on the Tropic of Capricorn. As a result, Southern Hemisphere receives more light and heat. The day is longest and night is the shortest in Southern Hemisphere and the reverse is happening in Northern Hemisphere. This phenomenon is known as the Winter Solstice. Since a large portion of Southern Hemisphere receives heat and light from Sun during this period, it is Summer in the Southern Hemisphere and Winter in the Northern Hemisphere.

Equinox

On 21st March and September 23rd, sun rays directly fall on the equator. At this position, neither of the poles are tilted toward Sun. The whole earth experience equal day and equal night. This phenomenon is known as Equinox.

CLASS 6 GEOGRAPHY NOTES

CHAPTER 2 GLOBE : LATITUDES AND LONGITUDES

Globe is a true model of the Earth.

A needle is fixed through the globe in a tilted manner, which is called its axis.

The imaginary line running on the globe divides it into equal parts. This line is known as the Equator.

All parallel circles from the Equator up to the poles are called parallels of latitude. Latitude is measured in degrees.

As we move away from the Equator, the size of the parallels of latitude decreases.

The four important parallels of latitude are :

• Tropic of Cancer (23 1/2°N)

Tropic of Capricorn (23 1/2°S)

Arctic of Circle (66 1/2°N)

Antarctic Circle (66 1/2°S)

Heat Zones of the Earth

• Torrid zone receives the maximum heat.
• The temperate zone has a moderate temperature.
• The frigid zone has a cold climate as the sun rays are always slanting.

Longitudes

• The line of reference running from the North Pole to the South Pole is called Meridians of Longitude.
• The distance between them is measured in ‘degrees of longitude’.
• All meridians are of equal length.
• The meridian which passes through Greenwich, where the British Royal Observatory is located, is called the Prime Meridian.
• The value of Prime Meridian is 0° longitude and from it, we count 180° Eastward as well as 180° Westward.
• Prime Meridian divides the earth into two equal halves, the Eastern Hemisphere and the Western Hemisphere.
• 180° East and 180° West meridians are on the same line.
• We can locate any point on the globe if we know its latitude and longitude.

Longitude and Time

• As the earth rotates from West to East, those places East of Greenwich will be ahead of Greenwich time and those to the West will be behind it.
• The earth rotates 360° in about 24 hours.
• At any place, a watch can be adjusted to read at 12 o’clock when the Sun is at the highest point in the sky.

Standard Time

• The local time various places are different, so it is necessary to adopt the local time of some central meridian of a country as the Standard Time.
• 82 1/2°E is treated as the Standard Meridian of India. The local time at this meridian is known as the Indian Standard Time (IST).
• India located East of Greenwich at 82° 30’E, is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of GMT.
• Some countries have a great longitudinal extent and so they have adopted more than one standard time.

The Globe is a true model of the earth, in a small form. A needle, called the Axis is fixed through the globe in a tilted manner.

The axis of the globe passes through two extreme points: known as the Poles (the North Pole and the South Pole). This axis is shown in the form of a needle on the globe. The real earth has no such axis.

The circle passing through the centre of the earth, and perpendicular to the axis, is called the Equator. It divides the earth into two Hemispheres, the Northern and the Southern. We can imagine a number of more circles parallel to the equator, having their centres on the axis and having different radii. These circles are called Parallels of Latitudes.

The parallels are identified with the help of degrees. The equator represents the zero degrees latitude. The latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere are designated as degrees north (°N), e.g. 10°N, 20°N, and so on till 90°N (which is the North Pole). Similarly the latitudes in the Southern Hemisphere are designated as degrees south (°S), and 90°S is the South Pole.

The circle passing through Greenwich in Britain, and perpendicular to the equator, and parallel to the axis, is called the Prime Meridian. It divides the earth into two Hemispheres, the Eastern and the Western. Together, the Equator and the Prime Meridian divide the earth into four equal parts. We can imagine a number of more circles parallel to the Prime Meridian, having their centre at the centre of the earth, and having equal radii. These circles are called Degrees of Longitudes.

The longitudes are identified with the help of degrees. The Prime Meridian represents

the zero degrees longitude. The longitudes in the Eastern Hemisphere are designated as degrees east (°E), e.g. 10°E, 20°E, and so on till 180°. Similar is the case with the Western Hemisphere.

Degrees are further divided into minutes and minutes into seconds. Note that the symbol

for a minute is an apostrophe (‘) and that for a second is a double apostrophe (“). 60′ (60 minutes) make up a degree and 60″ (60 seconds) make up a minute. So 30’ means half a degree and 40” means two-thirds of a minute.

Two points on earth can lie on the same latitude but still be far away from each other. Also, two distant points may lie on the same longitude. But only one point lief on a particular pair of latitude and longitude. So latitudes and longitudes are helpful in locating a point on earth.The Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle are studied as special latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere. They are at 23 1/2° N and 661/2° N respectively.

The Tropic of Capricorn and the Antarctic Circle are studied as special latitudes in the Southern Hemisphere. They are at 231/2° S and 66 1/2° S respectively.

The area between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn receive maximum heat from the Sun and this region is called the Torrid Zone.

The area between the Artie Circle and the Tropic of Cancer in the Northern Hemisphere, and that between the Antarctic Circle and the Tropic of Capricorn in the Southern, have moderate temperatures. These regions are the Temperate Zones.

The area north to the Arctic Circle and that south to the Antarctic Circle is close to the Poles and receive the sunlight of very low intensity. So it is very cold here. These regions are called the Frigid Zones.

The Frigid Zones, the Temperate Zones, and the Torrid Zone are called the Heat Zones.

The sun does not shine equally on all longitudes at a time. When it is 12 noon at a time, it means that the sun is not at all visible at the place on the other side of the earth. ‘So it must be midnight there. In fact, we can say that the time difference is 24 hours at 360 degrees longitudes apart. So every longitude brings a difference of 4 minutes. This gives us the concept of Time Zones. Two consecutive time zones differ by an hour. The time at a particular place is said to be the local time.

It may happen that a certain country extends over a long range of longitudes, thus giving a large amount of time difference. E.g. Russia extends over eleven time zones. India actually extends over a range of a 2-hour time difference. But this is not too much, so for convenience and for uniformity, we have a standard meridian set at Allahabad (82° 30’), which gives the time for all over India. This time is called the Indian Standard Time (IST).

here are eight planets in our solar system. In order of

their distance from the sun, they There are eight planets in our solar system. In order of

their distance from the sun, they are: Mercury,

Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and

Neptune.

An easy way to memorise the name of the planets in

order of their distance from the sun is:

MY VERY EFFICIENT MOTHER JUST SERVED US NUTS.

There are eiAxis: The imaginary line about which the earth rotates once in 24 hours is called its axis.

Poles: The two extreme points of the axis are called the Poles. One of them is the North Pole and the other is the South Pole.

Equator: The circle passing through the center of the earth, and perpendicular to the axis, is called the equator.

Prime Meridian: The circle passing through Greenwich in Britain, and perpendicular to the equator, and parallel to the axis, is called the Prime Meridian.

Latitude: One of the imaginary circles parallel to the Equator is called latitude. The latitudes have their centers on one common line and they have different radii.

Longitude: One of the imaginary circles parallel to the Prime Meridian is called longitude. The longitudes have their centers at the center of the earth and have the same radius as the Earth.

Hemisphere: One of the two equal halves of the earth’s spherical shape is called a hemisphere. If the earth is halved along the equator, we get the Northern and the Southern Hemispheres. If we halve it perpendicular to the equator, we get the Eastern and the Western Hemispheres.

Heat Zones: Heat zones are the different zones of the earth, where the sun’s rays fall differently, thus causing different climate patterns. These zones are called the Torrid Zone, the two Temperate Zones, and the two Frigid Zones.

Greenwich: Greenwich is a place in the United Kingdom, near London, whose time is used as a standard all over the world. The Prime Meridian passes through this place, and so it is the place which divides the earth into the Eastern and the Western Hemispheres.

http://davp.nic.in/nis/english/index.html

By K Devaki Krishna Sai

Conservation Sites – location – features – Species- Habitat- importance

1. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Manipur

(c) Meghalaya

(d) Nagaland

Answer (a)

2. From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?

(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve

(b) Nallamala Forest
(c) Nagarhole National Park
(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve

Answer (a)

3. Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?

(a) Bhitarkanika National Park

(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park

(c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park

(d) Sultanpur National Park

Answer (b)

4. In a particular region in India, the local people train the roots of living
trees into robust bridges across the streams. As the time passes, these bridges become stronger. These unique „living root bridges‟ are found in

(a) Meghalaya

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(c) Jharkhand
(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer (a)

5. In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?

(a) Biosphere Reserves
(b) National Parks
(c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention

(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries

Answer (a)

6. If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?

(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves

(b) Chambal River

(c) Pulicat Lake

(d) Deepor Bed

Answer (b)

7. In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the „Great Indian Hornbill‟ in its natural habitat?

(a) Sand deserts of northwest India
(b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir

(c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
(d) Western Ghats

Answer (d)

8. What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’ a breed found in India?

1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometres in seawater. 2. It survives by grazing on mangroves.
3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (a)

Q9. With reference to „dugong‟, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
2. It is found along the entire coast of India.

3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act; 1972. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer (c)

Q10. Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?

(a) Saltwater crocodile

(b) Olive ridley turtle

(c) Gangetic dolphin

(d) Gharial

Answer (c)

11. Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganges River Dolphins?
1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers
2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers

3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally
4. U se of synthetic fertilizers and other agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the vicinity of rivers

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer (c)

12. Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?

(a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass

(b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard
(c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane)
(d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal

Answer (a)

13. Consider the following statements:

1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (d)

13. Which of the following leaf modifications occur (s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?

1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (d)

14. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?

1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants. 3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (c)

Organizations, Acts, Funds, Reports

14. „Gadgil Committee Report‟ and „Kasturirangam Committee Report‟, sometimes seen in the news, are related to
(a) constitutional reforms
(b) Ganga Action Plan

(c) linking of rivers

(d) protection of Western Ghats

Answer (d)

15. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (b)

16.On which of the following can you find the Bureau of Energy Efficiency Star Label?

1. Ceiling fans 2. Electric geysers 3. Tubular fluorescent lamps Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (d)

17. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?

1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (d)

18. What is/are the importance/importances of the „United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification‟?

1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive international partnerships.
2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates the allocation of major portion of financial resources to these regions.

3. It is committed to bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating the desertification.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (c)

19. Consider the following statements:

1. The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015.
2. The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (a)

20. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances?
(a) Bretton Woods Conference
(b) Montreal Protocol

(c) Kyoto Protocol

(d) Nagoya Protocol

Answer (b)

21. Which of the following statements regarding „Green Climate Fund‟ is/are correct?
1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.

2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (a)

22. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the

(a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
(b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999

(c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

Answer (c)

23. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of
the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?
(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.

(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.
(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.

Answer (a)

Pollution

24. In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?
1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (d)

25. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index?
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide

3. Nitrogen dioxide
4. Sulfur dioxide
5. Methane
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer (b)

26. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by

(a) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(b) Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide

(c) Ozone and carbon dioxide
(d) Nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide

Answer (d)

27.Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among

(a) NO , O and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight (b) CO, O and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(c) CO, CO and NO at low temperature
(d) High concentration of NO , O and CO in the evening

Concepts –
28.Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization”?

(a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide
in the atmosphere.
(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
(c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
(d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

Answer (a)

29. In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?

1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.

3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (c)

30. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for

(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
(b) Computing- oxygen levels in forest ecosystems (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions

Answer (c)

31. Which one of the following is the best description of the term „ecosystem‟?

(a) A community of organisms interacting with one another
(b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms
(c) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live

(d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area

Answer (c)

32. With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:
1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other 2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species
3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Answer (a)

33. Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?
(a) Ecotone

(b) Ecological niche

(c) Habitat
(d) Home range

Answer (b)

34. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater

3. Lowering of the water-table
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer (b)

35. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assume significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?
1. Avoiding monoculture practices

2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Answer (c)

For Civils Prelims 2020 GS Paper (Exam Re-scheduled date  : 4.10.2020

Prepared by: Praturi Potayya Sarma

Yojana Writer 

Mobile No.8143189271

1)Asian Development Bank (ADB) approved 2 million US dollars in new funding to support efforts to combat the spread of novel coronavirus (nCoV).

Consider the following  countries  in connection with the  funds to supplement the  ongoing regional technical assistance and strengthen response capacity :

1)Cambodia

2)China

3)Laos

4)Myanmar, Thailand and Vietnam

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

2)Tilhan Mission is for making India self-reliant in  which production ?

1) Oil seeds 

2) Rice

3)Wheat

4)Corn

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : a

3)The disinvestment target set for 2020-2021 by the Government in Union Budget is ________.

1)Rs.2.1 Lakh Crores

2)Rs.65,000 Crores

3)Rs.90,000 Crores

4)Rs.1.05 Lakhs

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : a

4)Shri Sujit Prasad is the head of the committee set up by the market  __________regulator which will suggest on policy matters pertaining to development of municipal debt securities 

1)LIC

2) SEBI

3)SBI

4)IRDAI

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : b

5) What are the features of new One Rupee note ? 

1) The overall colour of the new note is Pink Green. The signature of the new Rupee One note will bear Atanu Chakraborty

2)The size of the new  One Rupee Note is  9.7 x 6.3 cm with its paper made of 100 % cotton rag content 

3)On the reverse, there will  be symbol having design of grains depicting the agricultural dominance of the country and the surrounding design will consist of picture of ‘Sagar Samrat ‘ oil exploraltion platform  

4)Authentic rendering of the value in fifteen Indian Languages in the language panel .

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

6) The level of forex reserves (in India) at USD ______ billion as on March 6, 2020 remains comfortable to meet any exigency.

1) 487.24

2) 400

3)300

4)200

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : a

7) Financial markets worldwide are facing intense selling pressures on extreme risk aversion due to which of the following ?

1) spread of COVID-19 infections, compounded by the slump in international crude prices and a decline in bond yields in advanced economies

2) Flight to safety has led to spike in volatility across all asset classes, with several emerging market currencies experiencing downside pressures

3)  Mismatches in US dollar liquidity have become accentuated across the world

Ans: d

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3

(d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c

8) India’s current account deficit (CAD) narrowed sharply to US$ ______ billion (0.2 per cent of GDP) in Q3 of 2019-20 

1) 1.4

2) 17.7

3) 6.5

4) 5.0

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : a

9) The responsibility of preparing and ensuring fair presentation of the financial statements of a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) / Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) vests primarily with whom ?

1) Board of Directors of NBFC/ARC

2)Banks

3)Stock Exchanges

4)Stock Brokers

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : a

10) The prudential exposure limits for primary Urban Co-operative Banks (UCBs) for a single borrower/party and a group of connected borrowers/parties shall be 15 per cent and ______ per cent, respectively, of their tier-I capital.

1)10

2) 25

3)17

4)20

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : b

11)Which of the following is correct ?

1) ANBC : Adjusted Net Bank Credit 

2) CEOBSE : Credit Equivalent amount of off-Balance Sheet Exposure

3)  PSL:Priority Sector Lending 

4) UCBs :Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks 

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

12) Banks are not only facing competition from Fintech companies but also from large technology companies (BigTechs) which are entering into financial services industry in a big way. Building on the advantages of the reinforcing nature of their data-network activities, some BigTechs are venturing into which of the following ?

1) payments

2) money management 

3) insurance 

4) lending activities

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

13) Numerous FinTech startups have formed, spanning the banking and financial services industry. They have entered the payments and remittance space in the sphere of____________________________.. Through collaboration with FinTech players, several banks are applying a hybrid model where mobile services interact with banking services.

1) peer-to-peer lending, 

2) crowd-funding, 

3) trade finance, insurance,

4) account aggregation and wealth management

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

14)Which of the following is correct ?

1) GNPA :Gross Non-Performing Assets 

2) SCBs :Scheduled Commercial Banks 

3) CCCB:Counter Cyclical Capital Buffer 

4) NSFR :Net Stable Funding Ratio  

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

15) Finance and banking have emerged as engines of global economic growth. It is argued that technology has played a pivotal role in the proliferation of which type of  financial services ?

1) Cheques, 

2) wire transfers, 

3) ATMs 

4) credit cards

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

16)What is ‘negotiation’(According to Negotiable Instruments Act) ? 

1)’Negotiation’ means transferring an instrument (like cheque) from one person to another in such a manner as to convey title and to constitute the transferee the holder thereof.

2) Making arrangements

3)Taking commission 

4)Giving discount

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : a

17) RBI had granted final approval to the Kotak Mahindra Bank’s proposal to dilute promoters’ shareholding from the current 29.96% to ______ .

1) 20%

2)26%

3) 5%

4) 15%

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : b

18)RBI has proposed to set up a self-regulatory organization (SRO) by April, 2020 ___________ in India’s digital payment system.

1)improve security 

2)customer protection

3)pricing 

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3

(d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c

19)Which bank has topped the list of ‘Highest increase in brand value among global banks according to ‘The Banker’s Top 500 Banking Brands 2020 ‘ report ?

1) Yes Bank

2)IndusInd Bank 

3) IDFC First Bank

4) Bandhan Bank 

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : b

20)Which of the following is correct (in Indian Banking industry) ?

1)14 Bigger private sector commercial banks were nationalized : in 1969

2)6 more private sector commercial  banks were nationalized  : in 1980

3)RBI was established  : in 1935

4)Imperial Bank of India merged with SBI 

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

21) When RBI introduced Lead Bank Scheme (LBS) on the recommendations of FK Nariman Committee ?

1) 1966

2) December, 1969 

3)1961

4)1975

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : b

22) What are the different phases of Indian Banking  (since independence to 1991)? 

1)Foundation phase (1950s to 1969)

2)Expansion phase(mid 1960s to 1984)

3)Consolidation phase(1985 onwards)

4)Reforms phase (1991 onwards)

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

23)The macro-economic crisis faced by India in 1991 paved way for extensive financial sector reforms . Which reforms are included in it ? 

1)deregulation of interest rates

2)more competition, technological changes, 

3) prudential guidelines on asset classification and income regulation

4) capital adequacy , autonomy packages etc.

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

24) Which of the following is correct ?

1) Broad Market : The financial market which attract large volume of funds 

2)Deep Market:The market which provides opportunities for sufficient orders at fine rates below and above the market prices

3)Shallow financial market : under developed market due to Government regulations and controls 

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3

(d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c

25) Financial markets are classified as what ?

1)Money and capital markets

2)Organised and unorganized markets

3)Primary and secondary markets 

4)Formal and informal markets ; official and parallel markets; domestic and foreign markets

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

26) When  ‘one variant of Capital Indexed Bonds’ was issued for the first time, in India? 

1)29.12.1997

2)1991

3)1969

4)1980

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : a

27) A cash transfer system can be used for transferring which type of cash benefits ?

1) MNREGS wages

2)Scholarships

3)Pensions

4)Income support of other types and Health Benefits

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

28)To further improve the banking penetration through alternate channels, RBI has permitted non-bank entities for which of the following ?

1)to set-up White Label ATMs (WLAs)

2)to operate as Business Correspondents 

3)to facilitate large scale of electronic banking  and alternate delivery channels

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3

(d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c

29) What are the features of Local Area Bank ?

1)It is in the private sector 

2) It can be established in District towns and their activities are to focus on local customers 

3)The lending is to agriculture/allied activities, Small Scale Industries, trading and non-farm sector activities 

4)To operate within maximum of three geographically contiguous districts with HO/Registered Office located at a center within the area of operation of the bank 

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

30) Who is   new finance minister of UK ?

1)Rishi Sunak

2) Margaret Thatcher

3)Boris Johnson

4)Theresa May

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : a

31)What is ‘co-location’ ? Consider the following :

1)Co-location refers to the system wherein a broker’s server is kept in the stock exchange premises to reduce latency, or delay in computing terms, while executing trades. 

2)This facility enables the co-located entities to access the trade/order related data before other non-co-located entities 

3)It also enables co-located members to minimize the time for sending orders to the trading system of the exchange  

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3

(d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c

32) What is the need for Pension?

Consider the following :

1) Decreased income earning potential with age

2) The rise of nuclear family-migration of earning members.

3) Rise in cost of living.

4) Increased longevity; Assured monthly income ensures dignified life in old age.

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

33)Under National Pension Scheme, how many types of accounts are available to subscribers ?Give details.

1) Under NPS, two types of account are available to subscribers i.e. Tier I & Tier II; 

2) Tier I account is a pension account where subscribers contribute his / her savings (may include employer’s contribution in case of Corporate sector) for retirement into a partially withdrawable account

3)  Tier II account is an investment account in which subscribers are free to deposit any amount and withdraw whenever he wishes.

4) An active Tier I account is a pre requisite for opening of a Tier II account

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

34) What is National Pension Scheme? Who can join it ?

1) National Pension Scheme  is a contributory pension system which was initially (from 1st January 2004) introduced for the government employees and later rolled out for all citizens of India from May 1, 2009. 

2) Any citizen of India in the age group 18 to 65 years can join the NPS.

3) The person (employee/citizen) who joins the NPS is known as “Subscriber” in the NPS. 

4) Under the NPS, each Subscriber will open an account with Central Recordkeeping Agency (CRA) which will be identified through unique Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN).

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

35) The Board of Directors of ACU have decided to permit Japanese Yen for settling payments among the ACU member countries. In the abbreviation ACU, the letter A stands for what ?

1) Asian ( ACU : Asian Clearing Union )

2) Assam

3)Associated

4)Artist

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : a

36) Affordable Housing” is defined as a housing project using at least 50% of the Floor Area Ratio (FAR)/Floor Space Index (FSI) for dwelling units with carpet area@ of not more than ______ square meters.

1) 100

2) 60

3) 150

4) 200

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : b

37) Who are Payment Aggregators (PAs) and Payment Gateways (PGs)? 

1) PAs  and PGs are intermediaries playing an important function in facilitating payments in the online space.

2) Students

3) Parents

4)Officers

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : a

38) ‘Cyclicality of fiscal policy’ refers to what ?

1) It refers  to the direction of change in government expenditure and taxes relative to economic/output conditions. 

2) The fiscal policy is considered pro-cyclical, if it is expansionary during economic booms and contractionary during recessions

3) Health Policy

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c

39) India’s central bank, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), has been playing the developmental role and has taken several initiatives for __________ accessible and authorised payment systems in the country

1) safe, 

2) secure, 

3) sound, 

4) efficient

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

40) Which of the following is correct ?

1) CTS: Cheque Truncation System 

2)  ECS: Electronic Clearing System 

3) NACH:National Automated Clearing House 

4) NFS: National Financial Switch 

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

41) The IMPS is also a _______ immediate funds transfer system.

1) 24×7 

2) 8 hours

3) 4 hours

4) 12 hours

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : a

42) Introduction of _________ has revolutionised the mobile payment system.

1) Unified Payment Interface (UPI)

2) cheque

3)DD

4) Bill of Exchange

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : a

43) In 1987, the first ATM machine was introduced by ______in Mumbai.

1) HSBC

2) SBI

3) RBI

4) BoI

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : a

44) During the great recession of 2008, the United States government adopted fiscal stimulus of US$150 billion in 2008 and of approximately US$ 750 billion in 2009 which was around _____per cent of GDP.

1) 2

2) 6

3) 4

4) 3

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : b

45) What is ICR ? Give details.

1)  Interest Coverage Ratio (ICR) 

2) ICR is the ratio of earnings before interest and tax to interest expenses. 

3) It is a measure of a company’s debt servicing capacity. 

4) The minimum value for a viable ICR is 1.

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

46)What is STRIPS ? Give details.

1) STRIPS stands for Separate Trading of Registered Interest and Principal Securities.

2) Stripping is a process of converting periodic coupon payments of an existing Government Security into tradable zero-coupon securities, which will usually trade in the market at a discount and are redeemed at face value

3)It is about ownership in  partnership firms   

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c

47)  Which of the following is correct ?

1) SBIDFHI: SBI Discount and Finance House of India

2) CDSIL : Clearcorp Dealing Systems (India) Ltd.  

3) MCX-SX :MCX Stock Exchange 

4) OTCEI : OTC Exchange of India 

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

48)  Which of the following is correct ?

1) PFRDA :Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority 

2) PRAN : Permanent Retirement Account Number 

3) CRA: Central Recordkeeping Agency 

4) NPS : National Pension Scheme

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

49) In the abbreviation  OASIS, the letter I stands for what ?   Old Age Social & Income Security

1) Income ( OASIS : Old Age Social & Income Security )

2) Instalment

3)Investment

4) Issue

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : a

50)Give details about EPFO ? 

1) Employees Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) was set up in 1952 and it  administers the Employee Provident Fund (EPF)

2) It is one of the world’s biggest social security providers in terms of volumes. 

3) EPF is mandatory for the organised sector and companies/ organisations are required to statutorily comply with respect to all employees drawing wages up to Rs 15,000 per month. 

4) It offers a provident fund and a pension scheme. EPF requires equal contributions by the employer and the employee

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

51) The National Pension System Trust (NPS Trust) earlier known as New Pension System Trust was established by the ____________ on 27 February 2008.

1) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)

2) LIC

3)SBI

4) SEBI

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : a

52) What are the benefits of National Pension Scheme (NPS)?

1) It is voluntary – NPS is open to every Indian Citizen. A subscriber can choose the amount he wants to set aside and save every year. 

2) It is simple – All the subscriber has to do is to open an account either with any one of POPs (Point Of Presence) or through online mode and get a PRAN. 

3) It is flexible – Subscribers can choose their own investment option and pension fund and see their money grow. 

4) It is portable – Subscribers can operate their account from anywhere even if they change the city, job or their pension fund manager

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

53) Who can subscribe in National Pension Scheme  (NPS)?

1) Any citizen of India, whether resident or non-resident, who are aged between 18 – 65 years as on the date of submission of his/her application to the POP/ POP-SP. 

2) The citizens can join NPS either as individuals or as an employee employer group(s) (corporates) subject to submission of all required information and Know your customer (KYC) documentation.

3) Children below 6 years 

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c

54) Who can ‘cross’ a bank cheque ?

1)a drawer, at the time of issue

2)a holder (general to special and not negotiable crossing)

3)a banker who receives the cheque for collection (special crossing) , 

4)All the above ( As per Section 125 of Negotiable Instruments Act)

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

55) When a bank should not pay , if ‘cheque’ is submitted ?

1) in case of individual’s account , on the death of a drawer 

2)When the company is in liquidation 

3)To the insane customers

4)Insolvent drawers; countermanding 

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c

56) What is ‘stale cheque’ ? 

1)A cheque which is not presented for payment for a period of three months from the date of issue is considered to be a stale cheque.

2) 15 days old cheque

3) 20 days old cheque

4) 30 days old cheque

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : a

57)What is ‘Hundi’? How many types of ‘Hundies’ are there ? (As per NI Act )

1)Hundi is a  bill of exchange  generally written in vernacular and governed by local usage and practices 

2) Darshani Hundi 

3)Miadi Hundi 

4)Namyog Hundis and Khoka Hundi 

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

58) What is ‘bill of exchange’ ? Give details.

1)Bill of Exchange is an instrument 

2)It is in writing 

3)It contains an unconditional order 

4)It is signed by the maker ; It is directing certain person to pay ; it is certain sum of money only 

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3,4

(d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c

59)  In August 2016 Rattan Watal Committee was constituted to review measures necessary for which of the following ? Give details.

1) to promote the digital payment system in India . 

2)It recommended for establishing  separate Payment Regulatory Board  as an independent body for retail payments and suggested that RBI’s regulation must be kept only for SIPS 

3) The statutory status of the new Board within the overall structure of RBI, should be enshrined in the Payments and Settlement System Act, 2007 

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3

(d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c

60) What is FDI? Give details.

1)Foreign Direct Investment . FDI flows record the value of cross-border transactions related to direct investment during a given period of time, usually a quarter of a year

2)Financial flows consist of equity transactions, reinvestment of earnings, and intercompany debt transactions

3)With FDI, foreign companies are directly involved with day-to-day operations in the other country. It means that they are not only bringing money with them, but also knowledge , skills and technology  

Which of the  above is / are correct ?

(a)1only

(b)2 only

(c ) 1,2,3

(d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c