Prepared by: Praturi Potayya Sarma

Yojana Writer 

Mobile No.8143189271

Q1)Indian Space Research Organisation is getting ready to launch AdityaL1. 

Which of the following statements is / are applicable to AdityaL1 Mission? 

1)It is the first mission to study the Sun from India.

2)This will be India’s second space-based astronomy expedition after AstroSat, launched in 2015. 

3)AdityaL1 Mission is to be placed in the halo orbit around the Lagrangian Point (L1)of the Sun-Earth system.

4)L1, is 1.5 million KM from the Earth, and it offers the advantage of continuously viewing the Sun without any occultation/eclipse. 

5)Halo Orbit is a periodic three-dimensional orbit near the L1,L2 or L3

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

a)1 only

b)2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d)1,2,3,4,5

                 Ans : d

Q2) For Aedes-borne infections, including dengue, Professor Scott O’Neil and his team from Monash University, Melbourne, Australia developed Wolbachia-based strategy for the control of Aedes aegypti transmitted dengue/ chikungunya/zika viruses. Ae. aegypti does not harbor Wolbachia  in nature. 

Consider the following :

1)To develop Wolbachia infected Ae. aegypti strain, Wolbachia isolated from Drosophila melanogaster was introduced stably into this mosquito species. 

2)The transinfected Ae. aegypti mosquitoes in addition to exhibiting cytoplasmic incompatibility (producing sterile eggs) in crosses with wild Ae. aegypti females and maternal transmission of Wolbachia to the progeny in crosses with wild Ae. aegypti males, exhibits interruption of dengue, chikungunya, zika , yellow fever viruses replication.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

a)1 only

b)2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans : c 

Q3)Consider the following with reference to GISAT-1 :

1)Geo Imaging Satellite (GISAT-1) will mark the 8^th flight with indigenous Cryogenic Upper Stage (CUS)

2)The main equipment carried by the satellite is the 700 mm Ritchey-Chretien telescope along with the multi and hyper – spectral imagers to observe the Earth and collect data

3) GISAT-1 will facilitate near real time observation of the Indian sub-continent , under cloud free conditions, at frequent intervals. 

4)GISAT-1 has multi-resolution imaging capability ranging from 50m to 1.5 KM which will enable it to send a selected sector-wise image every 5 minutes and an image of the entire Indian sub-continent every 30 minutes , at 50 m spatial resolution 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

a)1 only

b)2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d)1,2,3,4

And : d 

Q4) Consider

the following in connection with SUTRA-PIC India Programme  :

1)Scientific Utilisation through Research Augmentation – Prime Products from Indigenous Cows ( SUTRA-PI) is a programme that involves focused research on ‘idigenous’ cows . 

2)The programme also focusses on complete characterization  of milk and milk proudcts derived from indigenous cows.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

a)1 only

b)2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans : c

Q5)Consider the following in connection with Sophisticated Analytical and Technical Help Institutes (SATHI):

1)It is government’s plan to set up 5 SATHIs every year, over the next four years, as the budget 2020-2021 speech. 

2)Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India will run this innovative scheme.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

a)1 only

b)2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans : c

Q6)Consider the following in connection with announcement of National Mission on Quantum Technologies and Applications (NM-QTA) with a total budget outlay of Rs.8000 crores for a period of five years :

1)The primary areas of focus of the Mission will be fundamental science, technology development, translational research , human and infrastructural resource generation, innovation and start-ups.  

2)Advancements in disruptive technologies like quantum computing , Artificial Intelligence (AI), Internet-of-Things (IoT), 3D printing , drones, DNA data storage etc., are changing established business models and transforming the world in ways more than one. 

     Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

    a)1 only

    b)2 only

   c) Both 1 and 2

   d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans : c

Q7)Consider the following in connection with Yongle Blue Hole (YBH):

1)Carbon more than 8,000 years old has been found inside the world’s deepest blue hole – the Yongle Blue Hole , which is recently discovered in the South China Sea.

2)YBH has a depth of 300 metres, far deeper than previously recorded deepest blue hole, Dean’s Blue Hole in Bahamas, which had a depth of 202 metres.  

3)This finding will help in studying carbon cycling and potential mechanisms controlling it.

4)Blue holes are marine caverns fills with water and are formed following dissolution of carbonate rocks , usually under the influence of global sea level rise or fall.  

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

a)1 only

b)2 only

c) 1,2,3,4

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans : c

Q8)What are the goal of National Mission for a Green India ?

1)To increase green cover in India to the extent of 5 million hectares and improve the quality the quality of existing green cover on another 5 mha

 2)It also aims to improve eco-system services like carbon sequestration , hydrological services and biodiversity and provisioning services like fuel, fodder , and timbe and non-timber forest products

3)It also has to increase forest-based livelihood income for about 3 million households.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

a)1 only

b)2 only

c) 1,2,3

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans : c

Q9) Consider the following :

1)The river Jia-Bhoroli is the lifeline of Nameri which flows along the Southern boundary of Nameri National Park, in the foothills of the eastern Himalayas in the Sonitput District of Assam

2)The vegetation type of Nameri is of semi-evergreen moist deciduous forests with cane and bamboo brakes and narrow strips of open grass lands along rivers (Jia-Bhoroli river and Bor – Dilorai river )

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

a)1 only

b)2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans : c

Q10) Consider the following :

1)A wetland is an area of land that is saturated with water ,  either through the year or for  varying periods of time during the year

2)Wetlands are typically shallow so sunlight can penetrate the surface to facilitate subterranean photosynthesis, making these ecosystems one of the most biologically productive areas on the plant 

3)India has 37 Ramsar sites now , covering an area of 1.07 million ha.

4)India has over 757,000 wetlands with a total wetland area of 15.3 million ha, accounting for nearly 4.7% of the total geographical area of the country

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

a)1 only

b)2 only

c) 1,2,3,4

d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c    

Q11)Coronaviruses (CoV) are a large group of viruses that are common among animals.

Consider the following :

1)In rare cases, they are zoonotic (can be transmitted from animals to humans).

2)The common hosts of coronaviruses are especially camels, pigs, bats. 

3)The rarest of the rare CoV infects humans  (animals to humans ; and humans to humans )

4) But now it can be assumed that they have evolved and can infect humans.

5) Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (SARS-CoV) , Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (MERS-CoV) and the recent novel Coronavirus -2019 (Covid-19) are the current examples

 Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3,4 only

c)1,2,3,4,5

d) Neither 4 nor 5 

Ans : c 

Q12) Consider the following :

1)Currently, no vaccine is available against coronavirus infections

2)Preventive measures are the only way treat this life-threatening pathological event

3)Proper sanitation, frequent hand washing with soap and disinfectants atleast for 20 seconds using the appropriate category mask and avoiding direct contact with suffering/suspected people are some preventive measures that can be taken to prevent the coronavirus infection

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3, only

c)1,2,3

d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c 

Q13)Consider the following :

1)The massive  traffic on roads does not stop animals or other creatures from crossing highways or roads or railways.

2)Quite often animal-vehicle collisions lead to serious injuries to animals and even fatalities

3)Animal mortality because of vehicular collision is one of the major causes of animal death or other mishappenings.

4)To overcome this problem,, wild life crossings play a significant role by reducing the probability of collision and so providing a safe corridor for wildlife transit

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3,4 only

c)1,2,3,4

d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c 

Q14)Consider the following :

1)107^th Indian Science Congress scheduled  in  Bangalore in January, 2020

2) Science and technology for rural development is the theme. 

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2 only

c)Both 1 and 2 

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans : c 

Q15) Consider the following, in connection with major scientific highlights of 2019 :

1)World’s First Living Creatures With Fully Scientific DNA

2)World’s First Ever 3-D Heart

3)Frist Ever Plant Sprouts On the Moon 

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3 only

c)1,2,3

d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c 

Q16)Consider the following :

1)E-cigarettes are more dangerous than ordinary cigarettes

2)Tobacco consumption still  accounts for 40% of cancer

3)To thwart the ban on manufacture of cigarettes , the tobacco lobby plays up the plight of tobacco farmers

4)Tobacco farmers can easily be shifted to other agricultural sectors 

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3,4 only

c)1,2,3,4

d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c 

Q17) Consider the following :

1)Phytoremediation , a restoration technique that cleans the environment by using plants capable of extracting metals from the contaminated soil.

2)Biorefinery processes biomass like food waste, plant and agriculture remains to convert it into useful valuable products .

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2 only

c)Both 1 and 2 

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans : c 

Q18)Consider the following :

1)Use of pesticides in India  began in 1948 with small scale of imports of DDT (for malaria control) and BHC (for locust control )

2)Pesticide use in agriculture began in 1949 and India uses aroun 30,000 tonnes of pesticides annually , more than 70% of which constitute organochlorine compounds having characteristics of both bio-accumulation and biomagnification. 

3)Of the pesticides used, only 0.1% hit the targeted pests and the rest pollute soil, water bodies and finally enter our food chain

4)Around 20% of Indian food product contain pesticide reduces beyond the Maximum Residue Level (MRL) , the maximum concentration of a pesticide expressed in Parts per Million (PPM) that is legally permitted in a food commodity, compared to only 2 % globally.

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3,4 only

c)1,2,3,4

d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c 

Q19)Consider the following :

1)Metal contamination also occur at the time of processing of food.

2)Taking the fact into consideration in the Food Safety and Standards (contaminants, toxins and residues) Regulations , 2011 permissible MRLs of 9 heavy metals viz., Lead, Copper, Arsenic, Tin Zinc,Cadmium, Mercury and Nickel , for different types of food articles have been prescribed.

3)Some time back there was a controversy over the presence of Monosodium Glutamate (MSG)in some noodle samples

4)FSSAI has mandated that package containing MSG mixed food must declare its presence and that it is not to be consumed by infants below 12 months. 

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3,4 only

c)1,2,3,4

d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c 

Q20) Consider the following :

1) The human Gastrointestinal (GI) tract harbours a complex and dynamic population of microorganisms, i.e., ‘gut bacteria’.

2) Bifidobacteria,  some types of Escherichia Coli, Lactobacilli are considered are good bacateria in GI

3)Campylobacter, Enterococcus Faecalis,Clostridium Difficile are considered as bad bacteria in GI 

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2, only

c)1,2,3,

d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c 

Q21)

Consider the following :

1)According to estimates of WHO, across the world, 650 million people were obese in 2016 and 1.9 billion adults (18 years and older) were overweight.

2)A person with BMI (Body Mass Index) between 25 and 29.9 is considered as overweight, while 30 and beyond is obese.

3)Non-commu

nicable diseases are preventable to a great extent through healthier food choices as well as regular physical activities .  

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2 only

c)1,2,3

d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c 

 Q22)Dr.Mrutyunjay Mohapatra is working as Director-General of Meteorology, India Metrological Department (IMD). He is lovingly calledas the cyclone man of India

Consider the following :

1)The extremely Severe Cyclonic Storm Fani hit Odisha in May 2019 at a wind speed of 175 kmph. 

2)Fani caused grave damage to Odisha’s green cover as nearly 22 lakh trees were destroyed in 11 coastal districts.

3)During cyclone Fani, the mangrove trees in the Balukhand Sanctuary in Konark near Puri were able to withstand the fierce wind .

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3 only

c)1,2,3

d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c 

  Q23)National Green Tribunal (NGT) recommended to issue guidelines prohibiting the use of Reverse Osmosis (RO) water in places where the Total Dissolved Salt (TDS) in the water is less than 500 milligrams per litre. 

Consider the following :

1)The decision is in direction to conserve water given that India is currently facing acute water shortage.

2)In the Reverse Osmosis (RO) , the solvent is forced to move from low concentration to high concentration through a semi-permeable membrane using high pressure provided by electricity. 

3) Nearly 80% of water rejected  by RO systems is adding to the already aggravating water crisis (during summer times)

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3 only

c)1,2,3

d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c 

Q24) Consider the following pair :

      Desert  Location

1)Sonoran Desert    Southwestern North America      

2)Simpson Desert Australia

3)Atacama Desert Chile

4)Gobi Desert Central Asia

5)Namib Desert Namibia

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?

a)1,2,3

b)1,2,3,4,5

c)3,4

d) 2 and 3

Ans : b

Q25)  Despite the delayed launch of Chandrayaan-2 , it was essential that the landing took place on September 6 – 7, 2019 as originally scheduled. 

Consider the following :

1)This was necessary to avail of the sunlight during one full lunar day, which is equivalent to 14 Earth days as both the lander and rover were  solar-powered. 

2)On September 3, 2019 the orbit of Vikram was further modified to 101 km x 35 km and in the early hours on September 7 the powered descent to the lunar surface was initiated. 

3)The Vikram lander followed the planned descent trajectory from the orbit of 35 km to just about 2 km above the surface and then suddenly contact was lost

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3 only

c)1,2,3

d) Neither 2 nor 3

Ans : c 

Q26)Consider the following :

1)Russian Chemist Dimitri Ivanovich Mendeleev designed the ‘Periodic Table of Elements, a century ago ( on 17 February 1869) making the study of chemistry systematic. 

2)In 1913 Henry Moseley changed the basis of classification of the elements replacing their atomic weights by atomic numbers, which formed the ‘Modern Periodic Table’.

3)At present the Modern Periodic Table has been expanded to 18 groups and accommodates 118 elements of which the first 92 from Hydrogen to Uranium occur in nature and the rest have been synthesized. 

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3 only

c)1,2,3

d) Neither 2 nor 4 

Ans : c 

                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                Q27)ICMR’s National Institute of Immunohaematology, Mubai has developed a cost – effective Point-of-care (POC)rapid diagnostic test for severe Haemophilia A and VonWilebrand Disease (VWD) a genetic disorder caused by missing or defective Von Wilebrand factor (VWF), a clotting protein.  

Consider the following :

1)Haemophilia A ( or hemophilia A) is a genetic deficiency in clotting factor VIII, which causes increased bleeding and usually affects males. 

2)In majority of cases it is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait, though there are cases which arise from spontaneous mutations

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2 only

c)Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans : c 

Q28)Consider the following :

1)Kilogram derived its provenance from the weight of a block of a platinum-iridium alloy housed at the International Bureau of Weighs and Measures in France.

 2)All other prototypes that served as national reference  standards, including the one at New Delhi’s CSIR-NPL, were calibrated to it. 

3)The Kilogram now hinges on the definition of the Planck Constant, a constant of nature that relates to how matter releases energy

4)CSIR-NPL is also in the process of making its own ‘Kibble Balance’ a device that was used to measure the Planck Constant and thereby reboot the Kilogram.    

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3,4 only

c)1,2,3,4

d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c 

Q29)Consider the following :

1)NITI Aayog has formulated a National Strategy for Artificial Intelligence .    

2)The policy forcuses on how India can leverage the transformative technologies to ensure Social and inclusive growth in India.

3) The policy aims at enhancing and empowering human capabilities to address the challenges of access, affordability, shortage and inconsistency of skilled expertise; effective implementation of AI initiatives to evolve scalable solutions for emerging  economies

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2 only

c)1,2,3

d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c 

 Q30) In connection with Gulf of Mannar National Marine Park consider the following :

1)It is a protected area of Indi consisting of 21 small islands (islets) and adjacent coral reefs in the Gulf of Mannar in the Indian Ocean

2)The park includes estuaries, mudflats, beaches and forests of the near shore environment.

3)It is an important habitat for the Cetaceans and larger whales 

4)Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park has been implementing the corral rehabilitation programme since 2002.

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3,4 only

c)1,2,3,4

d) Neither 3 nor 4

Ans : c 

31) Consider the following about Ramanujan Machine :

1)It is not really a machine but an algorithm and performs a very unconventional function

2)It does Reverse Problem Solving. With most computer programmes, human input a problem and expect the algorithm to work out a solution.   With the Ramanujan Machine, it works the other way round.

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2 only

c)Both 1 and  2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans : c 

Q32) Consider the following in respect of Super Year 2020 :

1)Global advocacy groups have nicknamed 2020 a ‘Super year’ for activism and action, highlighting the 21 SDG targets that are expiring in less than 12 months and the need to set the course for achieving the 2030 Agenda in its remaining decade.

2)In this 2020 Year , focus will be on  Gender Equality (SDG5), Climate Action (SDG 13), Responsible Consumption and Production (SDG 12); Life Below Water  (SDG 14) , Life on Ground (SDG 15) and Partnerships for the Goal (SDG 17)

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2 only

c)Both 1 and 2 

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans : c 

Q33) 13^th Conference of the Parties to the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS COP 13) was hosted by India in Gandhinagar, Gujarat.

Consider the following :

1)The conference kicked off “Super Year for Environment .

2)Ten new species were added to CMS Appendices at COP 13 .    Seven species were added to Appendix I, which provides the strictest protection : i.e., Asian Elephant, Jaguar, Great Indian Bustard, Bengal Florican, Little Bustard, Antipodean Albatross and the Oceanic Whitetip Shark

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans : c 

Q33)Professor Eugene P.Odum is widely recognized as ‘Father of Ecosystem Ecology’. 

Consider the following in connection with  categorization of Ecosystems : 

1)Natural Ecosystem which is further divided into Terrestrial, Aquatic(Fresh Water and Marine)

2)Artificial (man-engineered) ecosystems (For example croplands like maize, wheat ,rice-fields etc., where man tries to control the biotic community as well as the physio-chemical environment )

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2 only

c)Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans : c 

Q34)Consider the following in connection with Green Crackers :

1)A group of research institutes of the CSIR had begun work on ‘green crackers’ namely fireworks without barium nitrate.

2)The Nagpur based NEERI eventually hit upon formulations that substituted barium nitrate with potassium nitrate and zeolite.

3)The ‘green’ version of the ‘flower pot’ , one the most popular fire works , has a mixture of water and lime that is chemically stored in the cracker. When lit, the effulgence lso triggers water and the makers claim that the moisture wets the dust-and smoke particles

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3 only

c)1,2,3

d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c 

Q35) Considered the following with reference to Nobel Prize in Chemistry (2019):

1)It was awarded to 3 scientists for their work in developing lithium-ion batteries

2)John B Goodenough of the University of Texas at Austin, M Stanley Whittingham of Binghamton University and Akira Yoshino of Meijo University received equal shares of 9 million Swedish Kronor ( British Pounds 740,000) prize

3)In the early 1970s, Stanley Whittingham used lithium’s enormous drive to release its outer electron when he developed the first functional lithium battery.

4)John Goodenough doubled the lithium battery’s potential and Akira Yoshino succeeded in eliminating pure lithium from the battery , instead basing it wholly on lithium ions, which are safer than pure lithium. This made the battery workable in practice. 

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3,4 only

c)1,2,3,4

d) Neither 3 nor 4  

Ans : c 

Q36) India launched Snow Leopard Population Assessment in India (SPAI) to estimate the  population of snow leopards in the Indian ranges.

Consider the following :

1)Snow leopards are native to the alpine regions of Central Asia (Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Uzbekistan)

2)In India, snow leopards mainly inhabit the higher Himalayan and trans-Himalayan landscape at an altitude between 3,000 and 5,000 metres.

3)Snow leopards mostly prey on blue sheep and mountain ibex and their small prey include hares, game birds and marmots

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2 only

c)1,2,3

d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c 

 Q37) Consider the following in connection with C 40 Cities Climate Summit held at Copenhagen :

1)14 Global cities have pledged to promote sustainable food policies to tackle the climate crisis as well as boost the health of its citizens. 

2)As a part of the declaration, major of 14 cities will work towards implementing a ‘planetary health diet’ for all by 2030.  

3)The C40 Cities Climate Leadership Group (C40) is a group of 94 cities around the world that represents one twelfth of the world’s population and one quarter of the global economy .

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3only

c)1,2,3,

d) Neither 2 nor 3  

Ans : c 

Q38) ‘Colombo Declaration’  with an ambition to halve nitrogen waste by 2030 :

Consider the following in connection with air pollution :

1) Sri Lanka with support from UNEP, convened a two-day event at which member states came together to adopt this declaration.

2) Colombo Declaration has been developed with the technical support of the International Nitrogen Management System (INMS), a joint activity of the UNEP and the International Nitrogen Initiative supported by the Global Environment Facility .

3) Nitrogen in the form of nitrous oxide is also a greenhouse gas and a fast rising contributor to global climate change.

4) Nitrous Oxide is 300 times more potent as a green house gas as opposed to Carbon Dioxide . 

5)Un-reactive di-nitrogen N2) , forms 78% of the air we breathe   

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3,4 only

c)1,2,3,4,5

d) Neither 4 nor 5 

Ans : c 

Q39)  There were reports that the  popular messaging platform WhatsApp was used to spy on journalists and human rights activists in India in 2019 beginning. 

Consider the following : 

1)Pegasus is the flagship spyware of Israel-based NSO Group.

2)It is believed to be known by other names as well , like Q Suite and Trident 

3) It reportedly has the ability to infiltrate both Android and iOS devices and uses a number of ways to hack into a target’s mobile devices including using zero-day exploits.

4) Pegasus can steel information like passwords, contacts, text messages, calendar details, and even the voice calls made using messaging apps.

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3,4 only

c)1,2,3,4

d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c 

Q40) Traditional computers work on the basis of the laws of classical physics , specifically by utilizing the flow of electricity.

Consider the following in connection with Quantum Compuers:

1)A quamtum computer, on the other hand , seeks to exploit the laws that govern the behavior of atoms and subatomic particles.

2) At that tiny scale, many laws of classical physics ceases to apply, and the unique laws of quantum physics come into play. 

3)Quantum Supremacy is a term proposed in 2012 by John Preskill.   Quntum Supremacy is useful in Simplying data, understanding vast data, drug development, simulating materials, imitating quantum mechanics. 

4)Quantum computers have existed for decades, but have still not been able to reach quantum supremacy. 

   Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3,4 only

c)1,2,3,4

d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c 

Q41) 12 Beaches in India are selected for a  ‘Blue Flag ‘ certification i.e., an international recognition conferred on beaches that meet certain criteria of cleanliness and environmental propriety.

Consider the following pairs :

1)Eden beach Puducherry

2)Ghoghla Diu

3) Miramar Goa

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?

a)1,2,3

b)1 only

c) 2 only

d) 3 only

Ans : a

Q42)  Consider the following , in connection with Vyommitra :

1) ISRO recently unveiled its first woman astronaut – a half humanoid named Vyommitra , ahead of the first test flight of India’s human space mission, Gaganyan.

2)It is an artificial intelligence – based robotic system, being developed by ISRO Inertial Systems Unit, Thiruvananthapuram.

3) It can detect and warn if environmental changes within the cabin get uncomfortable for astronauts and change the air condition, replace carbon dioxide canisters, take up postures suited for launched and take  commands.

Which of the above are correct ?

a)1 only

b)1,2,3,

c)3 only 

d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : b

Q43)What is Xenobot ?

1)It is neither a traditional robot nor a known species of animal. And it comes under a new class of living , programmable organisms. 

2)Stem cells from the embryos of African aquatic clawed frongs, Xenopuslaevis (therefore the name ‘xenobots’) were separated into single cells and incubated.  

3)Then the cells were cut and joined under a microscope into a close approximation of the designs specified by the computer

4)Xenobots were designed after months of processing on the Deep Green supercomputer cluster at the University of Vermont.

Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3,4 only

c)1,2,3,4

d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c 

Q44) Which activities and facilities would be permitted in the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) of the beaches, including islands, subject to maintaining a minimum distance of 10 meters from the High Tide Line (HTL)?

1)Portable toilet blocks, change rooms and shower panels

2)Grey water treatment plant 

3)Solid waste management plant 

4)Solar power plant

5)Purified drinking water facility

Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3,4 only

c)1,2,3,4,5

d) Neither 3 nor 4 

Ans : c 

Q45) Ramsar sites in India are now 37 and the surface area covered by these sites is  now 1,067,939 hectares.

Consider the following , connection with new Ramsar sites in India :

1)Nandur Madhameshwar : Maharastra

2)Keshopur-Miani,Beas Conservation Reserve, Nangal  :  Punjab

3) Nawabganj, Parvati Agra, Saman, Samaspur, Sandi, SarasaiNawar : UP

Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3 only

c)1,2,3

d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c 

Q46)Consider the following , in the context of biennial India State of Forest Report 2019 :

1)India’s forest cover has increased by 3,976 sq km or 0.56% since 2017.

2)Present total forest and tree cover have risen to 24.56 % of the total geographical area of the country.

3)The top three states showing increase in forest cover are Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Kerala

Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3 only

c)1,2,3

d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c 

Q47) The highest population of elephants is found in Southern region . The maximum instances of human – elephant conflict are in East – Central region and West Bengal.  

What are the objectives of National Elephant Action Plan ?

1)To mitigate human-elephant conflict, along with improvement of habitat

2)To improve the quality of elephant habitat, along with maintaining the continuity of the habitat

3)The NEAP will build on the human-elephant conflict management guidelines of 2017 and take it forward.

Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3, only

c)1,2,3

d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c 

Q48) Consider the following with reference to Operation ‘Clean Art’ ?

1) It is the 28^th operation by Wildlife Crime Control Bureau to curb the illegal trade in mongoose hair in the last two decdes.

2)The illegal trade is a thriving multi-crore industry that results in the death of thousands of mongooses across India every month

3) The brushes are primarily used by artists looking for finesse in their work, thus resulting in the endangering of the species for the sake of finer brush strokes.

Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 only

b)2,3 only

c)1,2,3

d) Neither 2 nor 3 

Ans : c 

Q49)   Consider the following pairs:

1)Nkrek Bio-sphere Reserve  : Garo Hills

2) Logtak (Loktak) lake : Manipur state 

3) Namdapha National Park : Mishmi Hills and Patkai range 

Which of the above pairs is / are correctly matched ?

a)1only

b)2 and 3 only

c)1,2,3

d) None 

Ans : c

Q50) Consider the following pairs about parks and rivers passing through them :

1)Corbett National Park :  Ram Ganga

2) Manas  National Park : Manas

3) Silent Valley National Park : Bhavani 

Select the correct answer using the  codes given below: 

a)1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c)1,2,3

d) None 

Ans : c 

Preparation in 10 months:

• The FAQ is how to begin. Students may begin their preparation by downloading previous years question papers so that they can have an idea about the questioning  pattern.
• They can list down the topics from which questions have been asked during previous years. But keep it in mind that the pattern changes every year.
•  By and large, the 7 important topics in the syllabus will be covered. This knowledge will give a clear idea of what to expect in the coming Examination. Already Civils Pundits have made guess work.

Major Areas

Topic	Number of Questions
Art and culture	10
Current affairs	10
Modern Indian History	10-20
Geography & Environment	10-20
Economy	8-20
Science &Technology	5-10
Indian polity	10-20
Miscellaneous	10

To site an example, the pattern of 2014 Prelims GS paper I is given below:

topic	Number of Questions
Culture	14
Geography	10
Science	09
History	06
Environment	28
Polity	11
Economy	10
Agriculture	08
Information	04

  How to go about:

• It is better to begin with a preliminary reading of History text books of Class X and  XI of  NCERT and others for these above topics.  
• While concentrating on Art and culture keep in mind the areas like Buddhism and Jainism. Schools of philosophy like Sankhya, Charvaka, and Vedanta etc are to be kept in mind.
• Indus valley civilization is also important. It is part of Ancient History.
• Sangam period from South India is another area to be covered which will help in Mains examination also. 
• With regard to Medieval India ,cultural aspects of Bhakti and Sufi Movements are crucial.
• Most of the questions were based on NCERT Art and Culture text books.
• In ancient history, the questions are interfaced with culture and history.

    Be cautious:  

• While selecting the books to read be cautious.
•  Whatever book you have chosen ,read it with the point of examination.
• 1857 revolution and early part of Indian Freedom movement are important.
• Peasant movements and Role of women in freedom struggle are other areas to be covered.

     Indian History:  

• It is a vast subject to cover.   It takes lot of time also. The time is short and one has to cover all the topics in the syllabus.
• The focus should be on post- 1919 developments in India as part of Freedom struggle and Gandhi’s role.
• Most of the candidates have inhibitions about History.
• During the school days they might have gone through the History books with fear complexion. With regard to Prelims nothing to worry.
•  Post 1857 History can be attempted. Give more time to it.

  Indian polity: 

• This is a scoring topic. It is a mixture of easy and difficult questions.
• Constitutional frame work is an area where focus is to be laid.
• Have thorough knowledge on the following aspects:

       -Historical Background

       -Preamble- salient features

       -Fundamental Rights and Duties

       -Directive principles of state policy

Constitutional bodies (Election commission, CAG, Finance commission etc)

• Planning commission has been replaced with Niti Aayog. A detailed study in depth is to be made.
• National development council and Human rights commission of India

• New institutions like Competition commission of India \

• National green tribunal
• Lokpal
• Polity and Governance

The focus should be on Social sector legislations.  They include new legislations with regard to domestic violence and various Rights based on this legislation. The study will help in Mains preparation also.

Economy: 

• NCERT Class XI AND XII text books are most useful.
• Basic economic concepts like GDP, GNP, and national income are to be studied in depth.
• International Financial institutions like World Bank, International Monetary Fund and World Trade organization are other areas to be covered with Statistics.
•  Mostly the questions are conceptual and a thorough understanding of concepts is necessary. Get the basics as well as latest updates.

Geography:

• This has two parts- World geography and Indian geography. Environment is also part of it.
• NCERT Class XI- Fundamentals of geography are a must to read book.
• Atlas is to be kept on the wall of study room to understand the details.
• In World Geography, Principles of Geography, Map work , Climatic and vegetation zones are areas to be studied.
• Map marking will be part of the question paper.

• In the Indian Geography, Physical Geography of India, including relief features, mineral resources distribution, vegetation and cropping patterns are important.

Environment:

• Items include Biodiversity, Ecology, Human geography, climate change and pollution.
•  It is better to study them with current affairs orientation, so that the questions can be well answered.

General Science:

• Basic concepts of Physics- Electromagnetic spectrum, reflection and diffraction etc are to be studied in detail.
•  In Biology section, Biotechnology and Public health are the areas to be focused .  

  Be careful:

• One should read the questions carefully and thoroughly before selecting the correct answer.
• If a question cannot be answered immediately, one should move to next question instead of wasting time on one.
•  After going through the whole question paper and answering all the questions, one may get back to unanswered questions.  
• Since there is negative marking ,no guess work to be done.
•  Each mark counts for Mains selection.
• Time management is very vital during the two hour period of examination.
• There is only a minute or more to answer a question.
•  Speed and accuracy is the key to get good score. This can be done only through weekly tests conducted by various institutions.
• An in-depth understanding of subjects can help candidates to prepare for Prelims in a much better way. 
• The syllabus does not give much detail of the topics to be studied under each subject.
• It is expected to gain knowledge slightly below graduation level but definitely above high school level.

      Three categories of questions:

• Multiple choice questions- single response correct
• Multiple choice questions- Multiple response correct
• Multiple choice questions- Matching type

        The number of questions asked from different sections varies each time and there is no fixed rule.

                                                                                              Dr R A PADMANABHA RAO

                                                                                            CEO, ANANTA IAS ACADEMY

                                                                                                    9866586805

The Clock is Ticking….

With Prelims date 27^th June 2020 is fast approaching, one has to get ready to cope up with the time frame. You may be spending 8 to 10 hours per day for reading but it is important that it should register in your mind first. Otherwise, the entire exercise is futile. Every year, the competition is growing. So, the litmus test is how to win Prelims and enter the arena of Mains. When we compare the Statistics of previous years, it is evident that Prelims examination is the crux of the problem.

Strategy

• Utilize the short period available in a best way.
• Practice tests are important.
• At least ,you have to appear two grand/ mock tests.
• Do not worry, even if you get low marks.
• The cutoff marks will be 55 to 60 % in Prelims GS I.

Revision

• You should have SWOT analysis done and bank upon strong points.
• Have confidence on your abilities.
• Recollect all the important points during revision.
• It is important to assimilate than grinding. It is usually done during high school/ Intermediate stage while preparing for EMACET, which is routinely done in coaching centers.

What is to be read?

• Priority subjects are to be noted down first and then start with the preparation.
• Take the advice of your seniors and faculty of different institutes.
• It can be categorized under 9 heads for convenience sake.
• Prelims questions during past 4 years are shown below:

Subject	2013	2014	2015	2016
Current Affairs	18	23	31	42
Modern History	07	06	11	06
Ancient and Medieval History	08	14	03	11
Geography	14	10	11	04
Polity	18	11	12	06
Economy	18	10	21	29
Environment	17	28	22	21
Agriculture	05	08	04	05
Science & Technology	13	09	09	11

Since we have statistics at a glance we can concentrate on the subjects where more stress needs to be laid.

Current affairs

• Be thorough with current affairs.
• It is useful in three ways- for Prelims, Mains and Personality test.
• Environment, Ecology and Science subjects are to be given priority.
•  At least the current affairs of past one year are to be studied.
• Importance for current affairs of last 6 months is to be given while taking notes.
• Prepare a notebook -subject wise and keep it for revision at the last moment.

Traditional subjects

• Importance for traditional subjects like- Geography and Polity is narrowed down.
• Instead of Geography ,stress is laid on Environment.
• Instead of core Polity, it is stress on current polity.
• More stress is to be laid on agriculture.
• Regarding Economy ,the questions are clear cut and conceptual based

Dilemma in questions

• The questioning pattern has changed.
• The questions are in reverse gear.
•  Select the wrong statement among the following: If you are not alert, you may land up in wrong answer.
• In utter confusion and lack of time, one may go wrong resulting in loosing mark-0.33.
• While going through the question in a hurry, make note of the statement with pen or pencil so that while reviewing you can concentrate on the twist given.

Scoring topics to be kept in mind

• The recent trend in Prelims questions is on the following topics- Modern Indian History, Environmental issues, Fundamental rights, Constitutional institutions, etc.
• Good practice is the only solution.
• Go on answering previous question papers and take weekly tests.
• “One can take you to the pond- that is you who has to drink water from the pond”- Though it is an old saying, it is true.

Marking A B C D

• In a hurry to complete the examination within the time frame of 120 minutes, everyone is in a hurry to jump to a wrong conclusion.
• Elimination process is the best method.
• Candidates mark the answer with this process only.
• Self confidence and grip on the subject are most important.
• Most of the candidates for the fear of negative marking do not venture to answer.
• Finding out correct answer is necessary.
• Only few, out of lakhs of  candidates who appear for Prelims, clear the cut off score.

Right strategy

• To crack IAS in the first attempt, the candidate needs right strategy.
• Candidates often find Civil Services Examination a hard nut to crack, not due to lack of hard work or potential but due to lack of right strategy.
• Think of right strategy- Analyzing previous question papers is one among them.
• One can down load previous question papers in PDF format from the official website of UPSC. www.upsc.gov.in
• Regular tests  are conducted in our Academy.
• Enroll yourself online at our Academy, so that you can gain confidence.
• It will help to cover all the recommended textbooks and a time frame.
• Automatically it enables you to get proper exam practice.
• You can analyze your performance, find your own strong and weak areas, and compare your marks with peer groups.
• This method is much faster than reading the text books. If one is lucky 20 to 30% of questions may appear in UPSC exams.

NCERT

• The candidates by and large follow NCERT text books.
• But lot of other books and material are to be covered with in short period.
• A time table should be prepared to complete all the material available with you.
• Common mistake done is trying to read over ambitiously.

Guess Work of question pattern

• In general, the following will be the number of questions one can expect during 2020 Prelims.
• It is not gambling or astrology based. Only a guess work by Civils Pundits.

Subjects	Number of Questions (expected)
Indian History and Culture	12 – 15
Current Affairs	12 – 15
Geography ( Physical, Social & Economical Geography)	10 – 14
Indian Polity ( Constitution, Political Science, PanchayatRaj, PublicPolicy, etc)	10 – 12
Economy ( Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics)	10 – 15
Environment ( Environmental Ecology, BioDiversity)	15 -18
General Science	10 – 12

Civils’ Marathon by CEO

Now Available on AmazonKindle

         

A

Agriculture: Cropping pattern, Green Revolution

                   ICAR, Lab to land, Plan priorities

                   Commercial crops, Farmers welfare

                   First minister for Agriculture

                   Dry land farming, Irrigation facilities

Animal Husbandry:    Dairy farming, Amul experiment, white revolution

Archeology:  Archeological sites in India

Atomic Energy: Atomic energy commission

AYUSH:  Separate ministry

B

Banking: Role of Reserve Bank of India

                Nationalization of Banks 1969, Private Banks

                Banking industry, Loans to poorer sections, NPA

                Amalgamation of banks, financial banks

C

Chemicals and Fertilizers, Petrochemicals, Pharmaceuticals,

                        Drug controller authority

Civil Aviation: Private carriers, Air India, Modi government initiatives Udan

Coal:  Recent auction of coal mines, Colgate scam

Commerce:  Commerce and Industry, CII, IFFCI

                     India’s strength, Exports and Imports

Communications:  Posts and Telecommunications, TRAI

Consumer affairs:  Consumer courts, Public distribution system

Corporate affairs:  TATA and Reliance etc, corporate culture

                             Infosys, Wipro and other companies

Culture:         Cultural heritage of India, Indian culture Vs European culture

                     Sankaracharya, Vivekananda and others

D

Defence: Defence allocations, three army chiefs, military strength

                Rafale purchase controversy, Defense production, DRDO

                Welfare of Ex-servicemen

E

Electronics and IT

Earth sciences: Indian meteorological department              

Economy: Indian economy

                  Inflation, Economic reforms of PV Narasimha Rao (Manmohan Singh)

Energy:  Different types of energy, water, wind, non conventional energy

Environment, Forests and climate change

Education: New education policy , Budget allocations

External affairs: Look east policy, Foreign policy, Embassies

F

Finance:  Budget proposals, Direct taxes, indirect taxes

                Economic affairs, Expenditure,

                Revenue, Financial services, Investment and Public assessment management

Fisheries: Separate ministry

Food processing: As an industry

G

Ground water resources:

H

Health and Family welfare

Health schemes, Health research, public health, Covid 19

   Nation health schemes

Home affairs: Internal security, Armed forces, Central police organization

                        Border management, J&K affairs, Official language policy

                       Department of states

Housing and urban affairs

I

Industry: Heavy industry, Medium and small scale industries

                 Industrial policy , Public enterprises

Information and Broadcasting :

          Different wings, Prasara bharati, PIB

J

Jalasakti:  Drinking water and sanitation, water resources, River development

                 Ganga rejuvenation

L

Labour and employment

Law and Justice, Judiciary, Supreme court, High courts, Tribunals

Legal affairs, Legislative department

M

Micro, small and medium enterprises

Mines

Minority affairs

N

New and renewable energy

Niti Ayog vs planning commission

P

Panchyat raj, strengthening of panchayats, Panchayat raj Act  

Parliamentary affairs, Lok sabha, Rajy sabha

Power

R

Railways

Road transport and highways

Rural Development. NIRD, land resources

S

Science and technology: Bio technology, Scientific and industrial research CSIR

Shipping

Social justice and empowerment, Empowerment disabled persons

Space: ISRO- Sriharikota and others, Chandrayan and Mangalyan

Stastics and programme implementation

Steel:  SAIL

T

Textiles, textile policy NTC

Tourism

Tribal affairs

W

Women and child development, ICDS

Y

Youth and sports

Z

National Zoological Parks-Save Tiger Project

                              Compilation:  DR R A PADMANABHA RAO

                                                     CEO, Ananta IAS Academy

                                                     Benagaluru 15th August 2020

                     FACT SHEET

-2020 August 8:  Modi government has released  Rs1 lak Crores for agriculture sector

-8.5 crores of  farmers got Rs 2000 subsidy in their bank accounts out of 6000 per year

-Narendra Singh Thomar Agriculture Minister deliberated

-E- marketing facilities to sell their produce were introduced

– Ware Housing corporation

-Food Corporation of India

-Minimum support price MSP

History of Agriculture sector in India

-Babu Rajendra Prasad was the first Agriculture Minister in Nehru’s cabinet

                 from 1947 to 1950. Later he became first President of India

• First Five year plan priority was Agriculture 1951-56
• It was Harrod-Domar model planning
• Growth rate during the period was 3.6% more than expected
• Second five year plan  priority was Industrial development
• Niti Ayog was formed during NDA -1 regime with Planning commission

                 Involving states participation

• Food staples- Rice, wheat, and pulses, potato, Sugarcane, oil seeds, cotton,

        Tea, coffee, rubber and jute are important besides fisheries

• 70% of the rural households depend on agriculture in India
• 82% of them are small and marginal farmers
• Agriculture production has become costly
• Suicides by farmers due to bad income
• Total food grain production during 2019-20 was 295 million tons
• India is second world wide in farm outputs
• Gross value added by agriculture and fisheries is 19.48 crore rupees
• Agriculture is the primary source of income for 58% of our population
• Sugar production in the country was 26.46 million tones

Mock interview of Mr. Gopala Krishna Ronanki , All India 3rd Ranker, conducted by our CEO